“Pedophilia seems to correlate meaningfully with the age of masurbation onset. Meaning, the earlier in their life someone started to masturbate, the more likely they are to be attracted to children later”

Presumably, prudish parents won’t tell their kids anymore that masturbation causes blindness…

1. What exactly do they mean by “being sexualized”?
2. Are they actually trying to protect children, or are they really just trying to protect their morals and ideals of what a child is?

Their disgust, hatred and the stigma prevent these people from being reasonable. They do not even demand research, but just an immediate resignation of this position. Tells you all you need to know. Biased.

Blinded by our disgust we are failing to figure out effective strategies for actually protecting children.

I wish we could drill this into every single person’s head.

I found a website where you can explore the dataset (which has by now grown to over 1M replies): https://bigkinksurvey.com/. Interestingly, here the numbers are much lower: around 1/5 people who report that they are slightly - very and 1/3 of those who are “extremly” attracted to children have committed sexual assault, compared to 6% of people who have reported no such attraction at all.

The numbers are slightly higher for nepiophiles:

Around half the people who report an attraction to children say that they have had sexual contact with a child. That does not mean they are all CSA offenders though, as that contact may have happened when they themselves were a child, so this may just be a consequence of pedophiles in this dataset reporting being sexually active at an earlier age.

Finally, also roughly 1/3 to 1/2 of the people who report an attraction to children have consumed erotic child content, which does not necessarily mean CSAM, but explicitely also includes fictional content and stories.

In fact, there seems to be a correlation that people attracted to children generally prefer animated over live-action pornography:

What I find very odd though is that people who report an attraction to children are more likely to also report that they have acted on all their attractions. This seems weird, as even if we assume that no-one has any moral issues around sex with children, acting on pedophilia is just plain harder then probably any other sexuality. But maybe people include masturbation to fictional content or fantasies in this as well. Though, even then I would expect that many would be too ashamed to engage even just in that, but those people might not have admitted an attraction to children in the first place perhaps.

Also, people who report that they are “extremly” attracted to children seem to form outliers in almost every graph, being much more likely to have sexually assaulted someone, less likely (compared to other attraction levels) to prefer animated porn, and much more likely to have acted on their attractions. I wonder if this captures a specific group of pedophiles, maybe pedophilia combined with hypersexuality?

… or maybe that group just includes highly sexual people who are kind of attracted to everything? For instance, sexual assault seems to be correlated to having a very high number of sexual interests, and the more sexual interests a person has, the more likely it is that an attraction to children is among them.

I could spent all week on this website …

Sexual perpetrators, especially when they are men, are much more likely to report sexual attraction to children
In total, around half of all sexual perpetrators (not just limited to CSA offenders) report at least a slight sexual attraction to children

Point one is to be expected it is why pedophilia is considered a risk factor for abuse after all. Uncomfortable sure but still not surprising.

Point two is a bit worse. through one has to note that “at least a slight sexual attraction to children” is a long way from actually being a pedo. I am pretty sure if you would ask gay men many of them would report “at least a slight sexual attraction to woman” In fact when one asks gemini the question “gay men sexual attraction to woman” it straight up says “yup that is a thing” and gives you a lot of reasons why it could be for a specific men. And no one would say that a men who, once in a decade might have some feelings for a specific woman, is hetero. So why should we claim the same about pedophilia?

Quite frankly I would argue that point makes the difference between pedos and sexual offenders more clear then other studies. Because it says that 50% of perpetrators engage in the act with out any sexual attraction at all. Meaning sexual Gratifikation can not be the reason to engage in it.